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UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2011 - General Studies Paper I — question paper

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2011 - General Studies Paper I

Paper #3262 · 2011 · General Studies Paper I · 100 reviewed questions · Showing 1–40 of 100

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2011 General Studies Paper I, Series A: 100 questions with 99 final-key answers and concise KSLC explanations. Original questions and applicable copyright belong to UPSC and the respective rights holders. KSLC explanations are independent educational commentary; KSLC is not affiliated with or endorsed by UPSC. Official source: https://www.upsc.gov.in/examinations/previous-question-papers/archives 1 question(s) have explained discrepancies between the printed wording and final-key disposition; their official answers are disclosed, but KSLC automatic scoring is withheld. These were not officially dropped.

  1. In the Union Budget 2011–12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material? 1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bioasphalt is not based on fossil fuels. 2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources. 3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials. 4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing roads. Which statements are correct?
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. Consider: 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur. Which are emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular. 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer.
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? 1. Due to a gradual switchover to commercial crops, the area under food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%. 2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, people’s consumption patterns have undergone a significant change. 3. The food supply chain has structural constraints. Which statements are correct?
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  5. Scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us? 1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock. 2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases. 3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds. Which statements are correct?
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Commonwealth Games in India amounted to
    1. Export
    2. Import
    3. Production
    4. Consumption
  7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why? 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates. 3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity. Which statements are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  8. Which statement appropriately describes “fiscal stimulus”?
    1. A massive government investment in manufacturing to ensure supply meets a demand surge caused by rapid growth.
    2. Intense affirmative government action to boost economic activity in the country.
    3. Government action on financial institutions to ensure loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote food production and contain food inflation.
    4. Extreme affirmative government action to pursue financial inclusion.
  9. The formation of an ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for its formation?
    1. Prominent tropospheric turbulence and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
    2. Prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds, and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
    3. Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds, and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
    4. Increased temperature at the polar region due to global warming.
  10. Consider government actions: 1. Devaluing the domestic currency. 2. Reduction in the export subsidy. 3. Adopting policies attracting greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. Which can help in reducing the current account deficit?
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1 and 3
  11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, promoting Panchayati Raj Institutions, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer.
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  12. Two important rivers—one originating in Jharkhand and known by a different name in Odisha, and another originating in Odisha—merge a short distance from the Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This protected area is important for wildlife and biodiversity. Which place could this be?
    1. Bhitarkanika
    2. Chandipur-on-sea
    3. Gopalpur-on-sea
    4. Simlipal
  13. A rapid increase in inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is base effect?
    1. Impact of drastic supply deficiency due to crop failure.
    2. Impact of a demand surge due to rapid economic growth.
    3. Impact of the previous year’s price levels on calculation of the inflation rate.
    4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct in this context.
  14. India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to
    1. Its high population below 15 years.
    2. Its high population in the age group 15–64 years.
    3. Its high population above 65 years.
    4. Its high total population.
  15. Regarding “carbon credits”, which statement is not correct?
    1. The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol.
    2. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota.
    3. The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission.
    4. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme.
  16. Which is not a feature of Value Added Tax?
    1. It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation.
    2. It is levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain.
    3. It is a tax on final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.
    4. It is basically a Central Government subject and State Governments are only facilitators for its successful implementation.
  17. A “closed economy” is an economy in which
    1. the money supply is fully controlled.
    2. deficit financing takes place.
    3. only exports take place.
    4. neither exports nor imports take place.
  18. When a tree’s bark is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because
    1. Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.
    2. Roots are starved of energy.
    3. The tree is infected by soil microbes.
    4. Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.
  19. The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
    1. A bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation.
    2. A multilateral energy-security cooperation treaty among East Asia Summit members.
    3. A treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for energy-security cooperation.
    4. A multilateral cooperation treaty among BRICS countries for trade promotion.
  20. Three criteria contributed to recognition of Western Ghats–Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma as biodiversity hotspots: 1. Species richness 2. Vegetation density 3. Endemism 4. Ethno-botanical importance 5. Threat perception 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions. Which three are correct in this context?
    1. 1, 2 and 6
    2. 2, 4 and 6
    3. 1, 3 and 5
    4. 3, 4 and 6
  21. Human activities have increased atmospheric carbon dioxide, but much does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of: 1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere. 2. Photosynthesis by ocean phytoplankton. 3. Trapping of air in polar ice caps. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
  22. Marine upwelling zones increase ecosystem productivity by bringing: 1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface. 2. Nutrients to the surface. 3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
  23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly compared with a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
    1. the rain-forest soil is deficient in nutrients.
    2. propagules of rain-forest trees have poor viability.
    3. rain-forest species are slow-growing.
    4. exotic species invade the fertile rain-forest soil.
  24. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. What is the most appropriate reason?
    1. High rainfall supporting luxuriant vegetation.
    2. A confluence of different biogeographical zones.
    3. Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced.
    4. Less human interference.
  25. With reference to India, consider these Central Acts: 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957 3. Customs Act, 1962 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927. Which have relevance to biodiversity conservation?
    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. None of the above Acts
  26. Karl Marx explained class struggle with the help of which theory?
    1. Empirical liberalism
    2. Existentialism
    3. Darwin’s theory of evolution
    4. Dialectical materialism
  27. The ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why? 1. Ozone causes radio waves to be reflected to Earth. 2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) investment concern investment in a country. Which statement best represents an important difference?
    1. FII brings better management and technology, while FDI only brings capital.
    2. FII increases capital availability in general, while FDI targets specific sectors.
    3. FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets the primary market.
    4. FII is considered more stable than FDI.
  29. The objective of developing genetically engineered Bt-brinjal is
    1. To make it pest-resistant.
    2. To improve its taste and nutritive qualities.
    3. To make it drought-resistant.
    4. To extend its shelf-life.
  30. Regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana, consider: 1. The insured member must be the family head or an earning member in a rural landless household. 2. The insured member must be aged 30–65 years. 3. There is a free scholarship for up to two children of the insured studying in classes 9–12. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  31. Regarding Brent crude oil: 1. It is a major classification of crude oil. 2. It is sourced from the North Sea. 3. It does not contain sulphur. Which is/are correct?
    1. 2 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  32. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
    1. Slow down the speed of neutrons.
    2. Increase the speed of neutrons.
    3. Cool down the reactor.
    4. Stop the nuclear reaction.
  33. If a religious sect/community in India is given national minority status, what special advantages is it entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President automatically nominates a representative to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  34. What benefits are available under law to persons with disabilities in India? 1. Free schooling till age 18 in government-run schools. 2. Preferential land allotment for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  35. Why is the Government promoting “Mega Food Parks”? 1. To provide good infrastructure for food processing. 2. To increase processing of perishables and reduce wastage. 3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food-processing technologies to entrepreneurs. Select the correct answer.
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  36. Authorization for withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
    1. The President of India
    2. The Parliament of India
    3. The Prime Minister of India
    4. The Union Finance Minister
  37. All Union Government revenues by way of taxes and other receipts for government business are credited to the
    1. Contingency Fund of India
    2. Public Account
    3. Consolidated Fund of India
    4. Deposits and Advances Fund
  38. Microfinance provides financial services to low-income consumers and self-employed people. It includes: 1. Credit 2. Savings 3. Insurance 4. Fund transfer. Select the correct answer.
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  39. Which best explains Southeast Asia’s global geostrategic significance?
    1. It was the hot theatre during the Second World War.
    2. Its location between China and India.
    3. It was an arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War.
    4. Its location between the Pacific and Indian Oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.
  40. A food company advertises that its products contain no trans-fats. What does this signify? 1. Products are not made from hydrogenated oils. 2. Products are not made from animal fats/oils. 3. Oils used are not likely to damage cardiovascular health. Which is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

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