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UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2023 - General Studies Paper I — question paper

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2023 - General Studies Paper I

Paper #3238 · 2023 · General Studies Paper I · 100 reviewed questions · Showing 1–40 of 100

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Accuracy note: This is a reviewed structured rendering of an official previous-year paper and may cover only part of it. Where available, explanatory notes describe unresolved source or answer issues without supplying a scoring answer. Official examination authority notices remain final.

KSLC structured study edition based on UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2023, General Studies Paper I, Series A: all 100 questions and 400 choices, 99 final-key answers and concise KSLC explanations for all 100 questions. Q34 was officially dropped and is explained without a scoring answer. Historical facts and rules are interpreted in the examination-year context; qualifications are disclosed where needed. Original questions and applicable copyright belong to UPSC and the respective rights holders. KSLC explanations are independent educational commentary. KSLC is not affiliated with or endorsed by UPSC. Official original: https://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/QP_CS_Pre_Exam_2023_280523.pdf

  1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
    2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
    3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  2. Consider the following pairs:
    Port — Well known as
    1. Kamarajar Port — First major port in India registered as a company
    2. Mundra Port — Largest privately owned port in India
    3. Visakhapatnam Port — Largest container port in India
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. All three pairs
    4. None of the pairs
  3. Consider the following trees:
    1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
    2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
    3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  4. Consider the following statements:
    1. India has more arable area than China.
    2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
    3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
    1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
    2. Marakkanam Salt Pans
    3. Naupada Swamp
    4. Rann of Kutch
  6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
    1. Aluminium
    2. Copper
    3. Iron
    4. Titanium
  7. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
    1. Argentina
    2. Botswana
    3. the Democratic Republic of the Congo
    4. Kazakhstan
  8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
    1. Cameroon
    2. Nigeria
    3. South Sudan
    4. Uganda
  9. Consider the following statements:
    1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
    2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
    3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  10. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
    1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
    2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
    3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  11. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
    Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  12. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
    Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  13. 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
    1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
    2. The United Nations Environment Programme
    3. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
    4. The World Wide Fund for Nature
  14. Consider the following fauna:
    1. Lion-tailed Macaque
    2. Malabar Civet
    3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  15. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
    1. Butterflies
    2. Dragonflies
    3. Honeybees
    4. Wasps
  16. Consider the following statements:
    1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
    2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
    3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
    4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  17. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
    1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
    2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
    3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  18. Consider the following statements:
    1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
    2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
    3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below
    3. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  19. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
    1. Fishing cat
    2. Orangutan
    3. Otter
    4. Sloth bear
  20. Consider the following:
    1. Aerosols
    2. Foam agents
    3. Fire retardants
    4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  21. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
    Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  22. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I:. In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
    Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  23. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
    Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  24. Which one of the following.activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
    1. Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
    2. Oversight of settlement and payment systems
    3. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
    4. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
  25. Consider the following markets:
    1. Government Bond Market
    2. Call Money Market
    3. Treasury Bill Market
    4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  26. Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
    1. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
    2. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
    3. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
    4. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
  27. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger ( Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
    2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
    3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  28. Consider the investments in the following assets:
    1. Brand recognition
    2. Inventory
    3. Intellectual property
    4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  29. Consider the following:
    1. Demographic performance
    2. Forest and ecology
    3. Governance reforms
    4. Stable government
    5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. All five
  30. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
    1. Affordable housing
    2. Mass rapid transport
    3. Health care
    4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  31. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
    1. The principle of natural justice
    2. The procedure established by law
    3. Fair application of law
    4. Equality before law
  32. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
    Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
    1. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws
    2. It enables the creation of political offices and a government
    3. It defines and limits the powers of government
    4. It secures social justice, social equality and social security
  34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
    1. 1st Amendment
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 44th Amendment
    4. 86th Amendment
  35. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:
    1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
    2. The National Human Rights Commission
    3. The National Law Commission
    4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  36. Consider the following statements:
    1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
    2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
    3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
    1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
    2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
    3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  38. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
    1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
    2. hunting is not allowed in such area
    3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
    4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
  39. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
    2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
    3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
  40. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
    Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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