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Meghalaya Police Service Preliminary Examination 2022 - Multiple Subjects — question paper

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Meghalaya Police Service Preliminary Examination 2022 - Multiple Subjects

Paper #3169 · 17-12-2022 · Multiple subjects · 514 reviewed questions · Showing 281–320 of 514

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Accuracy note: This is a reviewed structured rendering of an official previous-year paper and may cover only part of it. Where available, explanatory notes describe unresolved source or answer issues without supplying a scoring answer. Official examination authority notices remain final.

  1. Given two parallel straight-line demand curves, the price-elasticity of demand for both curves will be equal ___.
    1. At each price level
    2. At each demand level
    3. Only at points on these demand curves falling on a straight line emanating from origin
    4. At any point where any of the demand curves cut the horizontal axis
  2. Which are characteristics of the kinked demand curve? (i) Equilibrium is defined by the point of kink; (ii) Price rigidity under oligopoly; (iii) The upper portion of the kinked demand curve is highly elastic.
    1. (i), (ii) and (iii) all are correct
    2. (i) is correct but others are incorrect
    3. (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect
    4. All (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
  3. Given the consumption function C = 100 + 0.60Y, what is the value of investment multiplier?
    1. 80
    2. 2.5
    3. 5
    4. 1.25
  4. For the Cobb-Douglas production function X = 6L^0.7K^0.3, which statement is correct? (X = output, L = Labour and K = Capital)
    1. Elasticity of substitution equals one
    2. Labour output elasticity is 0.3
    3. Capital output elasticity is 0.7
    4. Returns to scale are decreasing
  5. Which one of the following is the incorrect statement?
    1. Pareto optimality can always be achieved under monopoly
    2. Factors are mobile under perfect competition
    3. Consumer surplus can be positive under third-degree price discrimination
    4. Consumer surplus is largest under perfect competition
  6. Suppose a consumer consumes two substitute goods X and Y and the price of X increases. What is the nature of the consumer's demand for X if expenditure on X decreases?
    1. Unitary elastic
    2. Perfectly inelastic
    3. Elastic
    4. Inelastic
  7. The higher the marginal income tax rate, the ___.
    1. Higher the MPC out of disposable income
    2. Lower the MPC out of disposable income
    3. Higher the autonomous expenditure multiplier
    4. Lower the autonomous expenditure multiplier
  8. Pareto Optimality in exchange is obtained ___.
    1. At each point within the Edgeworth Box
    2. At each point on the contract curve
    3. At each corner point
    4. Either at the bottom left corner or top right corner of the Edgeworth Box
  9. The demand function for a Giffen good is ___.
    1. Downward sloping
    2. Concave downwards
    3. Upward rising
    4. With zero elasticity
  10. The Pigou effect describes the relationship ___.
    1. Between aggregate consumption, real cash balances and price level
    2. Price level and rate of interest
    3. Wage and interest rate
    4. Price level and income
  11. The direct and proportional relationship between prices and quantity of money is known as ___.
    1. Real Balance Theory
    2. Quantity Theory
    3. Both Keynesian and Cambridge Theory
    4. Keynesian Theory
  12. When money supply rises, it causes ___.
    1. Interest rates to rise, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise
    2. Only interest rate rises
    3. Interest rates to rise, investment spending to fall, and aggregate demand to fall
    4. Interest rates to fall, investment spending to rise, and aggregate demand to rise
  13. According to the monetarists, in the long-run, the Phillips Curve is ___.
    1. Fully inelastic
    2. Infinitely elastic
    3. Downward sloping
    4. Partially elastic
  14. In the IS-LM model, an easy monetary policy in conjunction with a tight fiscal policy ___.
    1. Increases exports and decreases imports
    2. Decreases exports and increases imports
    3. Encourages foreign capital inflows
    4. Decreases exports, increases imports and encourages foreign capital inflow
  15. The rate of inflation is measured by ___.
    1. The level of GDP growth
    2. The level of CPI
    3. The percentage change in CPI from one year to the next
    4. Changes in retail price
  16. The imposition of an import tariff by a nation will increase the nation's welfare ___.
    1. Never
    2. Often
    3. Sometimes
    4. Always
  17. Which of the following did Mahatma Gandhi, non-violent politician and leader of India's nationalist movement, not advocate?
    1. Village economic development
    2. Handicraft production and labour-intensive technology
    3. Centralized decision making
    4. Reduction of material wants
  18. Which among the following is not in Rostow's stages of development?
    1. Traditional Society
    2. Take off
    3. Precondition of Take off
    4. Stage of high capital
  19. Which of the following is not a quasi-public good?
    1. National defence
    2. An automobile
    3. Libraries
    4. Fire protection
  20. As economic development proceeds, income inequality tends to follow a(n) ___ curve.
    1. Convex
    2. Inverted U-shaped
    3. L-shaped
    4. S-shaped
  21. The basic growth equation in Harrod-Domar model is ___. Where g is the rate of growth, s represents savings rate, I is investment and Y is income, θ is capital output ratio and v is output capital ratio.
    1. g = s/θ
    2. g = s/v
    3. g = I/Y
    4. g = v
  22. The labour law that seeks to protect the interests of agricultural labour in India is ___.
    1. Employee's State Insurance Act, 1948
    2. Minimum Wage Act, 1948
    3. Employees Provident Fund Act, 1952
    4. Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923
  23. Which one of the following regions is the largest trading partner of India?
    1. European Union
    2. West Asia
    3. East African countries
    4. North America
  24. The major function of NABARD is to ___.
    1. Give loans to the public
    2. Accept deposits from the public
    3. Give loans to commercial banks and regional rural banks for the development of rural sector
    4. Deal in government securities
  25. The Green Revolution in India can most appropriately be described by ___.
    1. Intensive cultivation of green vegetables
    2. Intensive agriculture district product
    3. Seed-fertilizer-irrigation technology
    4. Organic farming
  26. Brain Drain means ___.
    1. Drain out of the brain's capacity
    2. Damage of country's educated brains
    3. Emigration of trained and qualified people from the country
    4. Drainage of body
  27. The 'Drain Theory' about poverty in India is associated with ___.
    1. M. Visvesvaraya
    2. V.K.R.V. Rao
    3. Dadabhai Naoroji
    4. Subhas Chandra Bose
  28. In the India context which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    1. Tax evasion: Parallel economy
    2. High powered money: RBI
    3. Female work participation rate: Disinvestments
    4. Privatization: New economic policy
  29. Match List I and List II: A. New Economic Policy; B. Monetary Policy; C. Trade Policy; D. Fiscal Policy; with 1. Controlling Bank Credit; 2. Deficits and Debt Management; 3. Globalization; 4. Liberalization.
    1. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    2. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    3. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
    4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  30. Which committee recommended a two-tier Panchayati Raj structure, with a Zila Parishad at district level and a Mandal Panchayat below it?
    1. Mahalanobis Committee
    2. Ashok Mehta Committee
    3. Gadgil Committee
    4. Balwant Raj Mehta Committee
  31. The committee that has given its recommendations on 'Financial Inclusion' is ___.
    1. Rakesh Mohan Committee
    2. Rangarajan Committee
    3. Sinha Committee
    4. Kelkar Committee
  32. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation Transactions, actually it wishes to regulate ___.
    1. Inflation
    2. Liquidity in economy
    3. Borrowing powers of the banks
    4. Flow of Foreign Direct Investments
  33. Which one is the relative measure of dispersion?
    1. Range
    2. Mean deviation
    3. Standard deviation
    4. Coefficient of variation
  34. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    1. Mean - Mode = 3(Mean - Median)
    2. Mean - Median = 3(Mean - Mode)
    3. Median - Mean = (Mean - Mode)
    4. Median - Mode = 1/3(Mean - Mode)
  35. Hedging refers to ___.
    1. The acceptance of a foreign exchange risk
    2. Covering of a foreign exchange risk
    3. Foreign exchange regulation
    4. Foreign exchange arbitrage
  36. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. For real x, the function f(x) = [x]/x has domain:
    1. R
    2. R - {0}
    3. (0, infinity)
    4. [0, infinity)
  37. For x > 0, what is the maximum value of ln(x)/x?
    1. 1
    2. 1/e
    3. e²
    4. e
  38. Let Earth’s radius be R=λ²g, where λ>0 and g is the acceleration due to gravity at Earth’s surface. What is the orbital speed of a satellite moving in a circular orbit of radius approximately R?
    1. λg
    2. λg/√2
    3. √2 λg
    4. λ²g
  39. A particle executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) and takes 2 s to travel from one extreme to the other. If x is its displacement from the mean position, its acceleration a is:
    1. -(π/2)x
    2. -(π²/4)x
    3. -πx
    4. -π²x
  40. For ideal projectile motion with no air resistance, a projectile is launched at 48 ft/s and lands at its launch height. Taking g = 32 ft/s², what is the greatest horizontal range?
    1. 96 ft
    2. 144 ft
    3. 72 ft
    4. 84 ft

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