UPSC CAPF (AC) 2024 Paper I – Series A — question paper

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UPSC CAPF (AC) 2024 Paper I – Series A

Paper #3132 · 2024 · General Ability and Intelligence · 118 reviewed questions · Showing 81–118 of 118

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Accuracy note: This is a reviewed structured rendering of an official previous-year paper and may cover only part of it. Where available, explanatory notes describe unresolved source or answer issues without supplying a scoring answer. Official examination authority notices remain final.

Official UPSC CAPF (Assistant Commandants) 2024 Paper I, Series A, presented as a reviewed structured set of all 120 English-language questions. KSLC provides 118 reviewed scoring solutions and two conspicuous non-scoring explanations for Q36 and Q37, where the printed wording does not support a unique defensible answer. This is an independent KSLC review, not an official UPSC answer key.

  1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists. List I (Climate Conference): A. COP-26; B. COP-27; C. COP-28; D. COP-29. List II (Country): 1. Egypt; 2. Azerbaijan; 3. United Kingdom; 4. UAE.
    1. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    2. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
    3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  2. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides safeguards against dismissal, removal or reduction in rank for a member of a civil service of the Union or a State?
    1. Article 309
    2. Article 311
    3. Article 315
    4. Article 320
  3. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)? 1. UNCLOS authorizes the UN Security Council to take a direct action in case of the disputes between States on sovereign rights over Exclusive Economic Zones. 2. UNCLOS defines contiguous zones and specifies its functions. 3. Both the US and India have ratified UNCLOS. 4. UNCLOS grants certain rights to Landlocked States. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 3 and 4
  4. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Muddiman Committee recommended the separation of Accounts from Audit as a necessary financial reform. 2. The Indian Institute of Public Administration was set up on the lines recommended by Dr. Paul H. Appleby. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  5. Which report describes the budget not merely as a balance between tax receipts and expenditure, but as a process in which taxation and public expenditure are used to influence economic conditions?
    1. Administrative Reforms Committee Report
    2. Hoover Commission Report
    3. Haldane Committee Report
    4. Plowden Report on Control of Expenditure
  6. Considering membership as of 2024, which of the following statements are correct about the G20?
    1. All G7 countries are members of the G20.
    2. All BRICS countries are members of the G20.
    3. All ASEAN countries are members of the G20.
    4. All permanent members of the UN Security Council are members of the G20.
    Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
  7. Which of the following statements about Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution of India are correct?
    1. Some Fundamental Rights are enforceable only against the State.
    2. Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India.
    3. Some Fundamental Rights are enforceable against both the State and private individuals.
    Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  8. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Municipality?
    1. 243-R
    2. 243-S
    3. 243-T
    4. 243-ZA
  9. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The abolition of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission. 2. The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  10. What type of missile test did DRDO conduct under the name ‘Mission Shakti’ in 2019?
    1. Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile
    2. Air-to-Air Missile
    3. Anti-Satellite Missile
    4. Nuclear-Powered Attack Submarine
  11. Consider the following statements about the criteria for horizontal devolution of Union taxes to States:

    1. The 15th Finance Commission introduced a tax-and-fiscal-effort criterion that the 14th Finance Commission had not used.
    2. The 15th Finance Commission measured demographic performance using total fertility rates together with 1971 Census population data.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  12. Consider the following statements: 1. Burden of a tax on a commodity is independent of who (buyer or seller) it is explicitly imposed upon. 2. Burden of a tax on a commodity depends on the slope of the demand and supply curves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  13. In the usual ranking of India’s expenditure-side GDP components from largest to smallest, which sequence is correct?
    1. Private Consumption, Government Consumption, Net Exports, Gross Fixed Capital Formation
    2. Government Consumption, Private Consumption, Net Exports, Gross Fixed Capital Formation
    3. Private Consumption, Gross Fixed Capital Formation, Government Consumption, Net Exports
    4. Government Consumption, Private Consumption, Gross Fixed Capital Formation, Net Exports
  14. What is the percentage weightage assigned to Forest and Ecology in the devolution formula given by the Fifteenth Finance Commission of India for sharing of Union tax revenue with the States?
    1. 10%
    2. 15%
    3. 7.5%
    4. 2.5%
  15. Consider the following statements regarding instruments of Monetary Policy: 1. The Central Bank can increase the money supply by increasing the bank rate. 2. The Central Bank can increase the money supply by purchasing securities from the public. 3. The Central Bank can decrease the money supply by increasing the cash reserve ratio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  16. Which of the following statements with regard to National Logistics Policy (NLP) is NOT correct?
    1. NLP was launched in 2022
    2. NLP would improve the competitiveness of Indian goods
    3. NLP would enhance economic growth and increase employment opportunities
    4. NLP would provide an opportunity for deleveraging balance sheets and providing fiscal space for investment in new infrastructure assets
  17. Consider the following statements about public goods and externalities:

    1. Non-rivalry and non-excludability are two characteristics of pure public goods.
    2. An unpriced externality does not prevent a competitive market from reaching the socially optimal quantity.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  18. Which Finance Commission first included 2011 Census population as a criterion in the formula for horizontal devolution of Union taxes among the States?
    1. Thirteenth Finance Commission
    2. Fifteenth Finance Commission
    3. Fourteenth Finance Commission
    4. Twelfth Finance Commission
  19. Which of the following were specific reform measures introduced under India’s 1991 New Economic Policy, rather than broader development objectives?

    1. Trade liberalization.
    2. Public-sector disinvestment.
    3. Poverty alleviation.
    4. Rapid industrialization.

    Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 3 and 4 only
  20. Consider the following statements about the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP):

    1. For FY 2021–22 to FY 2024–25, the top three sectors by estimated monetisation potential were roads, railways, and oil and gas pipelines.
    2. NMP asset monetisation can use instruments such as public-private partnership concessions and Infrastructure Investment Trusts.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  21. Retail core inflation is calculated excluding which of the following? 1. Food and beverages. 2. Fuel and light. 3. Transport and communication. 4. Clothing and Education. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 3 and 4 only
  22. Which of the following is a part of the capital receipt of the Government of India? 1. Disinvestment receipts. 2. Interest receipts. 3. Small savings. 4. Net market borrowing. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4 only
  23. For FY 2023–24, arrange the following sources of Union Government revenue in ascending order of their percentage shares in total Union Government revenue.
    1. Union Excise Duty, Custom, Corporation Tax, GST
    2. Custom, Union Excise Duty, GST, Corporation Tax
    3. Custom, Union Excise Duty, Corporation Tax, GST
    4. Custom, GST, Union Excise Duty, Corporation Tax
  24. Which of the following statements with regard to the outcomes of the talks between the Prime Minister of India and the President of UAE held in February, 2024 is/are correct? 1. Both countries signed an agreement on inter-linking of domestic debit/credit cards. 2. An MoU was signed on cooperation in digital infrastructure projects. 3. Both countries agreed that a Bilateral Investment Treaty shall be signed in the next meeting at the ministerial level. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  25. Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of India's Foreign Trade Policy-2023?
    1. Enlarging MFN (Most Favored Nations)
    2. Export promotion through collaboration
    3. Ease of doing business
    4. Emerging areas - streamlining SCOMET policy
  26. Which of the following statements about 'Vibrant Village Programme' of the Government of India is/are correct? 1. It aims at comprehensive development of the identified villages. 2. Fairs, festivals, sports meet etc. are organized under this programme. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  27. Which of the following countries chaired the 43rd ASEAN SUMMIT?
    1. Thailand
    2. Philippines
    3. Indonesia
    4. Cambodia
  28. Which of the following Indian public-sector undertakings received Silver Awards in the Brandon Hall Group Excellence in Technology Awards 2023?
    1. NTPC
    2. BHEL
    3. Balmer Lawrie
    4. HPCL
  29. Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) is a joint initiative of which two organizations?
    1. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
    2. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and ASEAN
    3. UNDP and Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
    4. International Labour Organization (ILO) and ASEAN
  30. Which of the following countries does not share a land border with Ukraine?
    1. Romania
    2. Moldova
    3. Poland
    4. Lithuania
  31. JAYWAN is the domestic Debit Card of which of the following countries?
    1. UAE
    2. Egypt
    3. Saudi Arabia
    4. Nepal
  32. Who won the 2023 International Emmy for Best Performance by an Actor?
    1. Jim Sarbh
    2. Shefali Shah
    3. Vir Das
    4. Martin Freeman
  33. Which statements about carbon border adjustment mechanisms (CBAMs) are correct?
    1. They address carbon leakage, which can occur when production moves to jurisdictions with less stringent climate policies.
    2. They aim to support the environmental effectiveness of climate policies.
    Select the correct answer using the code below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  34. Which statements about the 2023 Nobel Peace Prize laureate Narges Mohammadi are correct?
    1. The prize was awarded for her fight against the oppression of women in Iran and for human rights and freedom for all.
    2. She received the prize for efforts to bring peace in Afghanistan and Iran.
    Select the correct answer using the code below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  35. Which one among the following statements with regard to the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28) is NOT correct?
    1. The 'Global Stocktake' is the central outcome of COP28
    2. It recognized the need to limit global warming to 1.5 degrees C
    3. It directed the developing countries to lead the transition away from fossil fuel
    4. It emphasized accelerated phase-down of coal-power
  36. Which statements are correct regarding the Supreme Court’s 2023 decision in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India?

    1. The case was decided by a Constitution Bench.
    2. The Court held that the grounds for removing every Election Commissioner are the same as those for removing the Chief Election Commissioner.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  37. The National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), which is developing Science Centres/Museums/Innovation Hubs in India, works under
    1. the Ministry of Science and Technology
    2. the Ministry of Culture
    3. the Ministry of Education
    4. the Ministry of Earth Sciences
  38. Which one among the following cities was included as the 'City of Music' in the year 2023 in the UNESCO's Creative Cities Network?
    1. Kozhikode
    2. Chennai
    3. Varanasi
    4. Gwalior

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