UPSC CAPF (AC) 2024 Paper I – Series A — question paper

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UPSC CAPF (AC) 2024 Paper I – Series A

Paper #3132 · 2024 · General Ability and Intelligence · 118 reviewed questions · Showing 41–80 of 118

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Official UPSC CAPF (Assistant Commandants) 2024 Paper I, Series A, presented as a reviewed structured set of all 120 English-language questions. KSLC provides 118 reviewed scoring solutions and two conspicuous non-scoring explanations for Q36 and Q37, where the printed wording does not support a unique defensible answer. This is an independent KSLC review, not an official UPSC answer key.

  1. Which of the following are processes in the rock cycle?
    1. Lithification
    2. Metamorphism
    3. Solidification
    Select the correct code.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  2. Under typical surface-energy-budget conditions, which statements about net radiation at Earth’s surface are correct?
    1. Net radiation is the balance of incoming and outgoing shortwave and longwave radiation.
    2. Net radiation is an energy flux that can contribute to warming or cooling the surface.
    3. It is usually positive during daytime and negative at night.
    4. A positive daytime net-radiation value means the surface emits no longwave radiation and cannot transfer heat or moisture upward.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. Consider the following statements about black soils:
    1. Black soils can support rain-fed crops.
    2. Their clay-rich profile can retain moisture, helping crops withstand short dry spells.
    Which option correctly describes the statements?
    1. Both statements are true, and statement 2 explains statement 1.
    2. Both statements are true, but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
    3. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
    4. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
  4. Which of the following countries lies in North Africa rather than on the Arabian Peninsula?
    1. Kuwait
    2. Oman
    3. Libya
    4. Yemen
  5. With reference to southern Australia, consider the following statements:
    1. Australia’s southern coast borders the Southern Ocean.
    2. December and January are winter months in Australia.
    Which statement(s) is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  6. What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! + ··· + 500! is divided by 8?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
  7. A sector of a circle has one-sixth the area of the semicircle of that same circle. What is the sector’s central angle?
    1. 15°
    2. 30°
    3. 45°
    4. 60°
  8. For each integer n from 11 through 20 inclusive, list its first five positive multiples: n, 2n, 3n, 4n and 5n. What is the average of all 50 listed values?
    1. 40.5
    2. 42.5
    3. 44.5
    4. 46.5
  9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. The average of 10, 15, 20 and 25 is 17.5.
    2. If a, b and c are three distinct natural numbers and a + b + c = abc, then their average is 3.

    Select the correct answer.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  10. The present ages of X, Y and Z are whole numbers of years. The ratio of X’s age to Y’s age equals the ratio of Y’s age to Z’s age. If Y is 15 years old, which of the following can be the sum of their ages?
    1. 35
    2. 40
    3. 49
    4. 55
  11. For a nonzero real number x, if x + 1/x = 2, what is the value of x³² + 1/x³²?
    1. -1
    2. 0
    3. 1
    4. 2
  12. A shopkeeper sold a product at 30% loss. Had his selling price been Rs150 more, he would have made a profit of 10%. What was the cost price?
    1. Rs375
    2. Rs400
    3. Rs425
    4. Rs450
  13. A, B and C can finish a work in 20, 25 and 30 days, respectively. They start working together but B quits after working for 3 days. In how many days from the start shall the work be completed?
    1. 9 8/15 days
    2. 10 1/15 days
    3. 10 14/25 days
    4. 11 1/10 days
  14. A and B start at the same time to reach the same destination. B travelled at 5/7 of A's speed and reached the destination 1 hour 20 minutes after A. What was the time taken by B to reach the destination?
    1. 4 hours 40 minutes
    2. 4 hours 55 minutes
    3. 5 hours 5 minutes
    4. 5 hours 15 minutes
  15. A petrol price rises by 12%. By what percentage must a person reduce petrol consumption to keep total expenditure unchanged? Give the answer to the nearest 0.1%.
    1. 8.6%
    2. 9.8%
    3. 10.7%
    4. 12.0%
  16. If 19a + 19b + 19c = 437, what is the arithmetic mean of a, b and c?
    1. 19/3
    2. 23/3
    3. 28/3
    4. 35/3
  17. Using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, how many distinct two-digit numbers can be formed if no digit is repeated?
    1. 6
    2. 15
    3. 30
    4. 40
  18. A train travels at 60 km/h and takes 20 seconds to pass a platform completely. The same train takes 12 seconds to pass a person walking at 6 km/h in the same direction. What are the train’s length and the platform’s length, respectively?
    1. 160 m and 153 1/3 m
    2. 170 m and 166 2/3 m
    3. 180 m and 153 1/3 m
    4. 180 m and 170 m
  19. In a partnership, A invests one-sixth of the total capital for one-sixth of the partnership period. B invests one-third of the total capital for one-third of the period. C invests the remaining capital for the full period. If the total profit is ₹46,00,000, what is C’s share?
    1. ₹30,00,000
    2. ₹32,00,000
    3. ₹34,00,000
    4. ₹36,00,000
  20. The sum of the ages of A and B (in years) is 22. The product of their ages two years back was 77. Which one of the following is the value of the difference of their current ages?
    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 5
  21. A shopkeeper sells two items, A and B. Item B’s cost price is twice item A’s. Item A is sold at a 10% profit and item B at a 20% profit. What is the net profit percentage on the combined cost price? Give the answer to the nearest 0.01%.
    1. 15.00%
    2. 13.33%
    3. 18.00%
    4. 16.67%
  22. In a class of 100 students, 50 play cricket, 37 play football and 22 play hockey. The pairwise counts are: 25 play both cricket and football, 15 play both cricket and hockey, and 12 play both football and hockey. Each pairwise count includes students who play all three sports. Ten students play all three. How many students play none of these sports?
    1. 33
    2. 23
    3. 27
    4. 30
  23. Five distinct people, including a couple, are seated around a round table. Arrangements that differ only by rotation are considered the same; mirror-image arrangements are considered different. How many arrangements place the couple non-adjacent?
    1. 24
    2. 18
    3. 12
    4. 6
  24. A fair coin is tossed three times and the outcomes are noted. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads?
    1. 2/3
    2. 1/2
    3. 5/8
    4. 3/8
  25. Consider the following statements about dress and hairstyles in India during the Gupta period:
    1. Stitched garments came into wider use during this period.
    2. Women’s hairstyles were generally simple plaits without floral adornment.
    Which of the statements is correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  26. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Third Round Table Conference met in London in November 1932 without the participation of Congress. 2. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference led to the passing of the Government of India Act, 1935. 3. The Government of India Act 1935 did not favor the idea of provincial autonomy. 4. The Governor was not given any power in the Act of 1935 to take over and run the administration of a province. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 3 and 4
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3
  27. Consider the following pairs of texts and their subjects:

    1. Tilakamanjari — Mathematics
    2. Dhanvantari Nighantu — Medicine
    3. Janakiharana — Logic

    Which pair(s) are correctly matched?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3
  28. The Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman associates storm damage to the Sudarshana Lake embankment with Saka year 72. Which CE year is assigned to this event in the standard historical conversion?
    1. 150 CE
    2. 181 CE
    3. 130 CE
    4. 120 CE
  29. According to Abdur Razzak’s account of Vijayanagara, which flower did residents regard as almost as necessary as food?
    1. Jasmine
    2. Lotus
    3. Hibiscus
    4. Rose
  30. In Kautilya's Arthashastra, the conqueror king is expected to establish, in the conquered territories, a social order based on
    1. varna system only
    2. dharma, varna and ashrama systems
    3. dharma only
    4. varna and ashrama systems
  31. Consider the following eras in early India: 1. Shaka era 2. Kalachuri era 3. Vikram era 4. Harsha era 5. Gupta era. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above eras starting with the earliest?
    1. 1-2-3-4-5
    2. 3-1-5-2-4
    3. 2-3-1-4-5
    4. 3-1-2-5-4
  32. What is Nalayira Divyaprabandham?
    1. Compositions by the Alvars compiled in the form of an anthology
    2. Hymns composed by Nayanars
    3. Eulogies composed for Chola kings
    4. An exposition of the hymns of Rig Veda in Malayalam
  33. What are bhuni, pachara, and dopati mentioned frequently in the biographies of the Vaishnava reformers of medieval Assam?
    1. Vessels of metal used in religious oblation
    2. Agricultural implements
    3. Musical instruments used at the time of Bohag Bihu festival
    4. Men’s clothing items
  34. Consider the following statements about Mahanavami dibba, a massive platform: 1. It is situated on one of the highest points in the city of Vijayanagara. 2. Virupaksha temple is located on it. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  35. Which of the following statements about the Bundela rebellion against Aurangzeb are correct? 1. Shivaji advised Chhatrasal to promote local risings against Aurangzeb. 2. Chhatrasal levied chauth like Marathas. 3. In 1705, Aurangzeb decided to make peace with Chhatrasal and Chhatrasal was granted mansab of four-thousand. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
  36. Consider the following statements about the Dutch trade in Mughal period: 1. The Dutch transported silk goods from Bengal through Hooghly. 2. Cloves and nutmegs were collected at Surat by the Dutch and exported to Europe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  37. Which naval forts were erected by Shivaji? 1. Suvarnadurg. 2. Vijayadurg. 3. Sindhudurg. 4. Kolaba. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 2 and 3 only
  38. Which of the following sectors have been identified as 'critical sectors' by the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre? 1. Power and Energy. 2. Industry. 3. Banking and Financial services. 4. Irrigation. 5. Education. Select the answer using the code given below.
    1. 3, 4 and 5
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4
  39. Consider the following statements about the emblem of the Milano Cortina 2026 Olympic and Paralympic Winter Games: 1. The emblem is named “Futura”. 2. The emblem was selected by popular vote for the first time in Olympic Games history. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  40. Which one among the following statements with regard to India's maritime initiative, SAGAR, is correct?
    1. It is a platform for conducting joint naval exercises under QUAD
    2. It aimed at promoting maritime cooperation with countries of the Indian Ocean Region
    3. It is an alliance of India, USA and Japan to provide safety to merchant ships passing through the Indian Ocean Region
    4. It is the name given to India's participation in the Contact Group on Piracy set up by the UN Security Council

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