Meghalaya Police Service Preliminary Examination 2022 - Multiple Subjects — question paper

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Meghalaya Police Service Preliminary Examination 2022 - Multiple Subjects

Paper #3169 · 17-12-2022 · Multiple subjects · 514 reviewed questions · Showing 441–480 of 514

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  1. In an experiment with Michelson interferometer 100 fringes were found to cross the field of view when the movable mirror was displaced through 0.02948 mm. What is the wavelength of the monochromatic source of light used?
    1. 4880 Å
    2. 5896 Å
    3. 6250 Å
    4. 7184 Å
  2. What is the radius of the first half period zone of a zone plate which behaves as a convex lens of focal length 40 cm for a wavelength of 4000 Å?
    1. 0.4 mm
    2. 0.2 mm
    3. 0.6 mm
    4. 0.8 mm
  3. Light of wavelength 546 nm gets plane polarized when reflected at an angle of 60° from a transparent plate. What is the approximate value of the refractive index of the material of the plate?
    1. 1.1
    2. 1.3
    3. 1.5
    4. 1.7
  4. Which of the following is suitable for the measurement of optical rotation of an optically active substance?
    1. Biprism
    2. Grating
    3. Polarimeter
    4. Michelson’s Interferometer
  5. When unpolarised light is incident on a calcite crystal, it gets split into two refracted rays. This optical phenomenon is commonly known as
    1. Double refraction
    2. Dispersion
    3. Interference
    4. Diffraction
  6. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of LASER?
    1. Speed
    2. Coherence
    3. Directionality
    4. Intensity
  7. Which of the following LASERs prefers optical pumping for the LASER action?
    1. Ruby Laser
    2. Helium Neon Laser
    3. Semiconductor Laser
    4. Both (b) and (c)
  8. The thermodynamic process in which temperature of the system remains constant is called
    1. Adiabatic
    2. Isothermal
    3. Isobaric
    4. Isochoric
  9. The Zeroth Law of thermodynamics deals with the following
    1. Absolute zero cannot be attained
    2. Ideal gases exert negligible force of interaction
    3. Thermal equilibrium of systems
    4. Kinetic energy of ideal gas molecules is zero
  10. First Law of thermodynamics is based on the following :
    1. Conservation of energy
    2. Conservation of linear momentum
    3. Conservation of angular momentum
    4. Conservation of charge
  11. What happens to the efficiency of a Carnot’s engine when the temperature of the source is increased?
    1. Increases
    2. Decreases
    3. Remains constant
    4. Increases or decreases depending on the nature of the working substance
  12. The efficiency of a Carnot’s engine working between 127 C and 27 C is
    1. 80 %
    2. 60 %
    3. 40 %
    4. 25 %
  13. Given the efficiency of a Carnot’s engine to be 70%. What is the temperature of the sink when the source is maintained at 1000 K?
    1. 300 K
    2. 500 K
    3. 800 K
    4. 1000 K
  14. The change in the internal energy during an adiabatic expansion of a system containing 5 moles of an ideal gas was found to be -80 J. The corresponding work done during the process is
    1. -80 J
    2. +80 J
    3. -400 J
    4. +16 J
  15. 200 J of work is done on a gaseous system to reduce it’s volume by compressing it adiabatically. The corresponding change in it’s internal energy is
    1. -200 J
    2. -200 calorie
    3. +200 J
    4. +200 calorie
  16. The ratio of the root mean square velocities of O₂ and H₂ at the same temperature is,
    1. 1 : 1
    2. 1 : 2
    3. 4 : 1
    4. 1 : 4
  17. Equation of state for an ideal gas is
    1. PV = nRT
    2. PV = nR/T
    3. PV = R/nT
    4. P/V = nRT
  18. The net change in entropy of a thermodynamic system in Carnot’s Cycle is
    1. Positive
    2. Negative
    3. Zero
    4. Dependent on the nature of the working substance
  19. Mean free path of a molecule of a gas is
    1. Directly proportional to the molecular diameter
    2. Directly proportional to the square of the molecular diameter
    3. Inversely proportional to the molecular diameter
    4. Inversely proportional to the square of the molecular diameter
  20. Gibbs free energy is defined as
    1. G = U - TS + PV
    2. G = U - TS
    3. G = U + PV
    4. G = U - PV
  21. Which of the following is the correct definition of thermodynamic potential known as Helmholtz free energy(F)?
    1. dF = TdS - PdV
    2. F = U + PV - TS
    3. F = U - TS
    4. F = U + PV
  22. If E and T denote the rate of emission of radiant energy per unit area of a perfectly black body and the absolute temperature respectively, then which of the following represent Stefan - Boltzmann law?
    1. E = σT
    2. E = σT²
    3. E = σT³
    4. E = σT⁴
  23. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to
    1. 0
    2. 0.5
    3. 1
    4. Infinite
  24. Wien’s displacement law is expressed as follows :
    1. λₘT = Constant
    2. λₘT² = Constant
    3. λₘT³ = Constant
    4. λₘT⁴ = Constant
  25. If the absolute temperature of a black body is doubled, the rate of the emission of energy will be increased to
    1. 2 times
    2. 4 times
    3. 8 times
    4. 16 times
  26. The statement ‘good absorbers are good emitter’s follows from
    1. Kirchhoff’s Law
    2. Stefan’s Law
    3. Wien’s Law
    4. Newton’s Law
  27. Which of the following is the SI unit of entropy?
    1. J K
    2. J⁻¹ K
    3. J K⁻¹
    4. J K⁻²
  28. If dS represent the change in entropy, then which of the following represent a reversible process ?
    1. dS = 0
    2. dS > 0
    3. dS < 0
    4. dS not equal to zero
  29. Which of the following has the highest co-efficient of viscosity ?
    1. Air
    2. Water
    3. Glycerine
    4. Machine oil
  30. The terminal velocity of a spherical ball of radius r falling through a viscous liquid is directly proportional to
    1. r⁴
    2. r³
    3. r²
    4. r
  31. The viscous drag on a spherical body moving through a viscous medium depends on
    1. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid
    2. Radius of the spherical body
    3. Velocity of the body
    4. All of the above
  32. SI unit of force constant is
    1. N m⁻¹
    2. N m
    3. N⁻¹ m
    4. N⁻¹ m⁻¹
  33. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude A and time period T. The maximum possible speed of the particle is
    1. 2πA/T
    2. 2πAT
    3. 2πT/A
    4. 2πT²/A
  34. The total energy of a particle of mass m executing simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency ω and amplitude A is
    1. m²ω²A²/2
    2. m²ω²A²/4
    3. mω²A²/2
    4. mωA²/2
  35. Which of the following represents Poiseuille’s equation for streamline flow of a liquid having coefficient of viscosity η through a capillary tube of radius r and length l maintained at a pressure difference of P?
    1. V=πPr⁴/(8ηl)
    2. V=πP²r⁴/(8ηl)
    3. V=πP²r⁴/(8η²l)
    4. V=πP²r⁴/(8η³l)
  36. Which of the following finds it’s application in ‘Venturimeter’?
    1. Stoke’s Law
    2. Poiseuille’s equation
    3. Bernoulli’s equation
    4. Kepler’s Laws
  37. Given the mean life of meson to be 0.02 μs, what will be it’s approximate mean life while moving with a velocity of 0.8 c?
    1. 0.013 μs
    2. 0.033 μs
    3. 0.024 μs
    4. 0.048 μs
  38. In relation to relativistic motion, length contraction happens
    1. Along the direction perpendicular to the direction of motion only
    2. Along the direction of motion only
    3. Both along the direction of motion and perpendicular to the direction of motion in the ratio 1 : 1
    4. Both along the direction of motion and perpendicular to the direction of motion in the ratio 1 : 2
  39. The energy equivalent to one atomic mass unit is approximately equal to
    1. 0.5 MeV
    2. 1.5 MeV
    3. 200.5 MeV
    4. 931.5 MeV
  40. When the frequency of the driving force becomes equal to the natural frequency of an oscillating system, it leads to
    1. Damped oscillation
    2. Resonance
    3. Stationary waves
    4. Circular motion

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